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Question #33 -
QUESTION:
Isn't the Holy Spirit incorrectly called "it" in Romans
8:26 in the King James Bible'?
ANSWER:
No. There is nothing wrong with the translation of "pneuma"
in Roman 8:26.
EXPLANATION:
The refutation of this popular though feeble charge against
the integrity of the Bible comes from three sources. First, the
Greek language itself, secondly, the hypocrisy of Bible critics
and thirdly, from Jesus Christ Himself. (Since the Bible is our
final authority in all matters of faith and practice,
His testimony should hold considerable
influence.)
First, the word translated "itself"
in Romans 8:26 is "pneuma" which means
"spirit." (Since the "spirit" is like air
(Genesis 1:7, John 3:8) we use the word "pneumatic" to
describe things that are air operated.) In Greek every word has
its own distinct gender, masculine, feminine or neuter. Masculine
gender is denoted by the article "o," feminine by
"a," and neuter by "to." The word for spirit,
"pneuma" is neuter, a fact which is
known to even first year Greek language students. Thus, the King
James Bible correctly translates pneuma
"itself" because it would be grammatically incorrect to
translate it "himself" as many of today's inferior
translations do. Since critics of the King James Bible like to
deride it for pretended "mistranslations" of the Greek,
it seems hypocritical indeed to criticize it here for properly
translating the Greek. Then to add insult to ignorance they laud
other versions such as the New American Standard Version, New
International Version, and New King James Version which
INCORRECTLY render pneuma as "himself."
Secondly, in adding to their hypocrisy and
exposing their disdain for God's Bible, these same critics, who
become indignant at the Holy Spirit being called "it" in
Romans 8 in a King James Bible, will promote translations such its
the New American Standard Version and the New International
Version which call God a "What " in Acts 17:23. The
Authorized Version correctly renders it "Whom."
Thirdly, and most convincingly, is a statement
that Jesus Christ makes in John chapter 4 while dealing with the
woman at the well.
Jesus, completely unintimidated by twentieth
century scholarship, doesn't hesitate to say to the woman in verse
22, "Ye worship ye know not what: we know what
we worship: for salvation is of the Jews."
To whom is Jesus referring to by the word
"what?" The next verse defines His statement perfectly.
"But the hour cometh, and now is, when the
true worshipers shall worship the Father in
spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship
him."
Thus we see that Jesus finds referring to His
own Father as "what" in verse 22 a non-issue.
While the mighty mice of twentieth century scholarship would
translate an entirely new version over it. Even though they, in
their own casual conversation, find no offense in referring to the
Holy Spirit in the neuter.
Which will you follow'?
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